Response1 DB2 (200 words)
CoachXThe clause in question is Article I, section 8 as you noted. We refer to it as the Interstate Commerce clause because it allows Congress to regulate the exchange of goods across state lines and between the states and foreign countries. Yet, it says nothing about regulating the exchange or sale of goods solely within a single state. In the case mentioned, Gonzales v. Raich (2005), there was no interstate commerce (Ivers, 2013). The plants were grown and used solely within the state of California. Where does the federal government have the power to regulate intrastate trade per the Constitution?
Reference:
Ivers, G. 2013. The Constitution: An Introduction.
- 6 years ago
- 5
Answer(1)
Purchase the answer to view it
NOT RATED
- order_93656_235367.doc
- order_93656_235558.doc
other Questions(10)
- BSHS 441 week 4 Team Assignment Interview With a Social Services Lobbyist
- BUS 517 Assignment 2 Project Scope
- BSHS 375 Week 1 Individual Assignment - Interoperability Paper
- Hsm 541 Week 2 You Decide
- 2 Probabilities Questions (statistics)
- Recidivism Rates for Sex Crimes
- THE UNIVERSITY OF SYDNEY
- week 5
- COM321- Can Anyone Guarentee me an A+
- Book review