Q1. XYZ Corporation sets an objective to increase its market share by 5% within 3 years. This is an example of a(n) ________ objective.

    a. suboptimal

    b. short-term

    c. principled

    d. long-term

    e. intermediate-term

 

Q2. The principle of the objective is another name for management by objectives.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q3. Of the four primary management functions organizing usually precedes planning.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q4. The process of determining how the management system will achieve its objectives is planning.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q5. Managers should establish objectives for employees that are in easy reach.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q6. The overall organizational objectives and the subobjectives assigned to the various people or units of the organization is referred to as suboptimization.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q7. MBO programs increase the volume of paperwork in an organization.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q8. The high failure rate of new businesses seems primarily a consequence of inadequate planning.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q9. Management-by-objectives is only a valuable tool for profit-seeking organizations.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q10. Which management writer popularized management-by-objectives?

    a. Peter Drucker

    b. Henry Fayol

    c. Abraham Maslow

    d. Frederick Taylor

    e. Tom Peters

 

Q11. Management should never give rewards for the achievement of goals established by MBO.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q12. One of the advantages of an MBO program is that it continually emphasizes what should be done in order for the organization to reach its goals.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q13. Planners need not have significant practical experience within the organization if they have good human relations skills.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q14. Decision makers who have a ________ orientation believe that the source of all good is outside themselves, and therefore rely heavily on suggestions from the organization members.

    a. Hoarding

    b. Marketing

    c. Exploitative

    d. Receptive

 

Q15. The ideal decision-making orientation emphasizes the realization of the organization's potential as well as that of the decision-maker.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q16. A group decision process in which negative feedback on any suggested alternative is forbidden until all members have presented alternatives is called brainstorming.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q17. ________ is also known as using simple rules of thumb to make decisions.

    a. Intuition

    b. Heuristic

    c. Bounded rationality

    d. Satisficing

 

Q18. Heuristic problem-solving techniques are examples of a modern technique that can be applied to a nonprogrammed decision.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q19. Not all managerial decisions are of equal significance to the organization.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q20. An organizational decision-maker who is willing to steal the ideas necessary to make good decisions has what type of decision-making orientation?

    a. hoarding

    b. market-oriented

    c. receptive

    d. ideal

    e. exploitative

 

Q21. In the decision-making process, it is important to accurately identify an existing problem prior to listing the possible alternatives for solving the problem.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q22. In the Nominal Group Technique, group members never meet face to face.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q23. The broader the scope of the decision, the higher the level of management responsible for it.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q24. Which of the following would be the most appropriate traditional technique for solving a programmed decision?

    a. habit

    b. intuition

    c. rules of thumb

    d. training

    e. judgment

 

Q25. A group decision process in which negative feedback on any suggested alternative is forbidden until all members have presented alternatives is called brainstorming.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q26. Most organizational decisions are made under conditions of complete uncertainty.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q27. If an organization wanted to determine if it was achieving its goals or whether the level of progress was satisfactory, which critical question should be asked?

    a. where is the organization presently going?

    b. what does our SWOT analysis show?

    c. what are the purposes and objectives of the organization?

    d. what can be done to better achieve organizational goals in the future?

    e. in what kind of environment does the organization now exist?

 

Q28. The ________ component is the part of the general environment related to government affairs.

    a. Economic

    b. Social

    c. Political

    d. Technological

 

Q29. The international component is the operating environment segment composed of factors influencing the supply of workers available to perform needed organizational tasks.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q30. 'In what kinds of environments does the organization now exist?' is one of the four basic questions required for critical question analysis.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q31. The different components of the general environment for an organization consists of the international, labor, customer, competitor, and supplier components.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q32. Question marks in the BCG Growth-Share Matrix are businesses with a high market share in a slowly growing market.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q33. Focus is a strategy that emphasizes making an organization more competitive by targeting a particular customer.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q34. SWOT is an acronym for a firm's Strengths, Weaknesses, Objectives, and Threats.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q35. The initials SWOT stand for Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q36. According to the BCG Growth-Share Matrix, economic resources would be used from which of the following to meet the financial demands of the organization in other areas?

    a. hippopotamus

    b. dog

    c. question mark

    d. star

    e. cash cow

 

Q37. Tactical planning is long-range planning that emphasizes the current operations of various parts of the organization.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q38. Strategy is the end result of strategic planning.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q39. The time series analysis method of predicting future sales levels asks appropriate salespeople for their opinions of what will happen to sales in the future.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q40. Most organizations use a weighting process to compare site differences among foreign countries.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q41. Standing plans are plans used over and over again because they focus on organizational situations that occur frequently.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q42. Standing plans and single-use plans are examples of which dimension in planning?

    a. time

    b. repetitiveness

    c. level

    d. scope

    e. both A and C

 

Q43. Repetitiveness, time, scope, and length are the four dimensions of plans.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q44. The jury of executive opinion of forecasting predicts future sales levels primarily by asking appropriate salespeople to give their opinions on what will happen to sales in the future.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q45. A budget is a single-use financial plan that covers a specified length of time.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q46. Which of the following is a standing plan that outlines a series of related actions that must be taken to accomplish a particular task?

    a. rule

    b. policy

    c. procedure

    d. budget

    e. guideline

 

Q47. Site selection is part of input planning.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q48. The portion of the total management system at which a plan is aimed is called the ________ of the plan.

    a. scope

    b. longevity

    c. time dimension

    d. level

    e. repetitiveness

 

Q49. The concept of forecasting can be traced at least as far back as Fayol.

    a. true

    b. false

 

Q50. Which of the following types of plans would be considered a single-use plan?

    a. policy

    b. rule

    c. procedure

    d. guideline

    e. program

 

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