1. Which statement is true?

a. Today more workers in the U.S. are members of labor unions than any time in our history

b. Today labor unions are weaker than any time in the last 100 years

c. No major labor union has called a strike since the 1940’s

d. Labor unions are relatively strong in the public (government) sector.

2. Exclusive union strategy involves

a. Increasing the demand for the final product, thereby increasing the demand for labor

b. Restricting the supply of union labor

c. Setting job standards and entry qualifications for members

d. Organizing all workers and bargaining for a wage

e. Negotiating only after a strike has been called

3. An example of an exclusive union would be

a. The Internal Brotherhood of the Teamsters

b. The Communications Workers of America

c. The American Medical Association

4. In which one of these years was labor union membership the highest?

a. 1940

b. 1960

c. 1980

d. 1990

5. Which of the following laws stated that attempts to monopolize conspiracies in restraint of trade, and conspiracies to monopolize were illegal?

a. The Federal Trade Commission Act

b. The Clayton Act

c. The Sherman Antitrust Act

d. All of the Choices

e. None of the Choices

6. Until the passage of the Airline Deregulation Act of 1978, the Civil Aeronautics Board controlled all of the following Except?

a. Fares

b. Assigned routes

c. Profits

d. Entry into the industry

7. The Clayton Act prohibited

A. interlocking directories

B. all forms of monopoly

C. foreign control of US corporations

D. False and deceptive advertising

8. Which statement is true?

a. Microsoft is subject to American antitrust laws but not those of Europe, Asia, or elsewhere

b. Microsoft has never been involved in anti -trust suit

c. The European Commission fined Microsoft over 600 billion for its anticompetitive behavior

d. Microsoft has always gone out of its way to be helpful to its competitors

9. A monopolist operated at the minimum point of her ATC curve

a. Only in the short run

b. Only in the long run

c. In both the short and long run

d. In neither the short nor the long run

10. Which of the following is characteristic of a monopoly?

a. The absence of political power

b. Close substitutes products

c. The ability to make an economic profit in the long run

d. Operating at peak efficiency

11. 

 

The firm will charge a price of

a. 8

b. 9.65

c. 10.

d. 12.

e. 16

12. Statement I Only natural monopolies are legal in the U.S.

Statement II: Large firms generally operate at peak efficiency

A. Statement I is true and statement II is false

B. Statement II is true and statement I is false

C. Both statements are true

D. Both statements are false

13. The nation’s largest bank has assets over

a. 2.5 billion

b. 25 billion

c. 250 billion

d. 800 billion

e. 1.8 trillion

14. Which statement is true?

A. Our money supply is fixed by law and can be raised by only a very small percentage each year?

b. Our money supply is backed by gold

c. Credit cards are form of money

d. Money makes an excellent store of value during times of inflation

e. One of the basic jobs of money is a standard of value

15. The first bankers were

a. goldsmiths

b. printers

c. storekeepers

d. innkeepers

e. blacksmiths

16. Suppose you had no money in your checking account and your bank granted you overdraft privileges. You then went out and charges $20 on your debit card. How much would your bank charge you in fees for using your overdraft privileges?

A. 0

b. 5

c. 15

d. 35

e. 50

17. Statement I: John Maynard Keynes called the hoarding of money at very low interest rates “ liquidity trap”

Statement II Since the late 1990’s Japan has been caught in a liquidity trap

a. Statement I is true and Statement II is false

b. Statement II is true and statement I is false

c. Both statements are true

d. Both statements are false

18.  Banks can

a. Create money but not destroy money

b. destroy money but not create money

c. create and destroy money

e. neither create nor destroy money

19. The Federal Open Market Committee is made up of all of the following, except

a. The board of governors

b. the chairman of the board of governors

c. the president of the U.S.

d. the president of the Federal Reserve Bank of NY

e. The presidents of four Federal Reserve other than the NY Bank

20. The Federal Reserve System

a. has regional Federal Reserve Banks that make most of the decisions

b. makes decisions subject to the approval of the President

c. makes its major policy decisions in its Open Market Committee

d. makes decisions subject to the approval of Congress

21. With economic development comes each of the following except

a. a decline in the birth rate

b. an increase in the stock of capital

c. rising per capita GDP

d. a declining wage rate

22. Our educational standards today

a. are the highest in history

b. are much higher than they were 50 years ago

c. are the same as they were 50 years ago

d. are much lower than they were 50 years ago

23. Brazil should be classified as a (N)

a. Very poor LDC

b. Middle rank LDC

C. NIC

D. Industrial country

24. The most important reason for our slow rate of productivity growth over the last three decades(of those listed below) is

a. lagging business sales

b. foreign imports

c. our low saving rate

d. high tax rates

25. Structural Unemployment occurs when

a. workers have quit one job and are looking for a better one

b. high school graduates enter the labor market every June

c.  The business cycle is in a downturn and people are laid off

d. the people without jobs have skills that don’t match the available job openings

26. Unemployment caused by economic decline or recession is called

a. frictional unemployment

b. cyclical unemployment

c. natural unemployment

d. necessary unemployment

e. structural unemployment

27. The recession of 2001 was caused by

a. the events of 9/11

b. a decline in consumer spending

c. a decline in investment spending

d. the war in Iraq

28. A budget deficit is the

a. annual excess of government spending over revenue raised by taxes, fees and charges

b. shortfall of Social Security collections toward payment of benefits

c. amount by which tax revenues and borrowed funds fall short of government expenditures.

d. excess of tax revenues over expenditures

e. amount by which tax revenues exceed borrowed funds

29. The consumer price index is created by

a. Calculating the cost of a basket of consumer goods typically bought by an American family in any year as a percentage of their cost in a base year.

b. the Congressional Budget Office

c. averaging the price increases for all consumer goods in the GDP and Adding 100

d. dividing nominal dollar consumer expenditures by base year consumer expenditures

30. Statement I: When equilibrium GDP and fill employment GDP are equal , there is no inflationary gap and deflationary gap.

Statement II: Equilibrium GDP is an ideal goal that can never be attained

a. Statement I is true and statement II is false

b. Statement II is true and statement II is false

c. Both statements are true

d. Both statements are false

31. When government expenditures in a given year are less than tax receipts there exits

a. a budget deficit

b. public revenue

c.  full- employment taxation

d. a budget surplus

32. As  price rises, the quantity _____rises.

a. demanded

b. supplied

c. demanded and supplied

33. If the MPC were .85, what change in government spending ( in billions of dollars) would be required to cause the equilibrium level to fail by 100?

a.  A decrease of 25

b. a decrease of 50

c. a decrease of 75

d a decrease of 100

e a decrease of 125.

34.

 

When a price is $8

a. Quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied and therefore price must fall to get to equilibrium price

b. Quantity demanded is greater than quantity supplied and therefore price must rise to get to equilibrium price

c. Quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded and therefore price must fall to get to equilibrium price

d. Quantity supplied is greater than quantity demanded and therefore price must rise to get to equilibrium price

35. Usury is considered the changing of

a. higher interest rates than people are willing to pay

b. lower interest rates than people are willing to pay

c. unconscionably high interest rates

e. extremely low rates of interest

36. The present value of a dollar rises as

a. the interest rate declines and the number of years you wait for your money declines

b. the interest rate rises and the number of years you wait for your money rises.

c. The interest rate declines and the number of years you wait for your money rises

d. the interest rate rises and the number of years you wait for your money declines

37. In economics we say the amount of land is

a. fixed

b. variable

c. both fixed and variable

d. neither fixed nor variable

38. Which is not determined by supply and demand?

a. the wage rate

b. the interest rate

c.  rent

d. profits

39. Which of the following is false?

a. The supply of land is fixed

b. When the demand for a plot of land risen its supply will rise

c. Land is most efficiently used in cities

d. The rent on a particular piece of land is based on the MRP schedule of the highest bidder

40. If you knew that interest rates would be rising, then you would predict that the present value of $1 received 5 years from now

a.  Would be higher

b. would be about the same

c. would be lower

d. could be higher or lower

41. Changes in rent on a plot of land are chiefly due to

a. changes in demand

b. changes in supply

c. changes in both demand and supply

d. changes in neither supply nor demand

42.

 

The horizontal dotted line is

a. A price ceiling

b. A price floor

c. Either a price ceiling or nor a price floor

d. Neither a price ceiling nor a price floor

43. These lenders  avoid using the term “interest”, but their borrowers still do pay a charge for borrowing money, This would be considered______lending.

a. Islamic

b. payday

c. fringe

d. sub-prime

44. ______ sees the entrepreneur as an exploiter of labor

a. Joseph Schumpeter

b. Frank Knight

c. Henry George

d. Karl Marx

45. A more equal distribution of income

a. might hurt the incentive to work

b. would not hurt there incentive to work

c. would be opposed by nearly all Americans

d. Would hurt the poor

46. Between 1994 and 2005 our Welfare rolls

a. declined substantially every year

b. declined slightly every year

c. declined most years

d. rose most years

47. Who expressed this view? “ unlike the present period, ( black) inner-city communities prior to 1960 exhibited the features of social organization including a sense of community, positive neighborhood identification, and explicit norms and sanctions against aberrant behavior”

a. Charles Murray

b. William Julius Wilson

c. Mickey Kaus

d. Lisabeth Schorr

e.  Celia Dugger

48. According to Darity and Myers

a. black men are becoming increasingly marginal to our economy

b. the basic cause of poverty is welfare dependency

c. the best solution to poverty is the negative income tax

d. as our economy continues to expand black poverty will decline

 

 

 

 

 



49.

 

The percentage share of income of the bottom quintile on curve x is

a. 0

b. 5

c. 10

d. 15

e. 20

50.  The percentage of people living in poverty in 2006 in the U.S was _____

a. 6

b. 11.7

c. 12.3

d. 15.2

51. Child poverty is

A. Much more of a problem in France, Germany, and Japan than it is in the U.S.

B. Less of a problem in the U.S. than in Canada, Britain, or Italy

C. More of a problem in Sweden, Denmark, and Ireland than it is in the U.S.

D. Much more of a problem in the U.S. than in virtually all other industrialized countries

52. Statement I: Social Security payments help mostly the poor

Statement II: Poverty may be defined as a relative concept and as an absolute concept

a. Statement I is true and statement II is false

b. Statement II is true and statement I is false

c. Both Statements are true

d. Both statements are false

53. Compared to their levels in 199 the poverty line has___ and the minimum hourly wage has_____.

a. gone up; gone up

b. stayed the same; stayed the same

c. gone up; stayed the same

d. stayed the same; gone up

54. In which year was the poverty rate the lowest?

A. 1960

b. 1973

c. 1984

d. 1993

e. 2006

55. Which statements is true?

a. Most economists support rent control laws

b. usury laws and rent control are price ceilings

c. Usury laws have never had any effect because they are set well above interest rates.

d. None of the choices

56.

 

If price were set by the government at 3, there would be a price ______ that would be a price_______ that would cause a _____of_______units.

a. Floor, surplus ,12

b. Floor, shortage, 12

c. Ceiling, surplus 14

d. Ceiling, shortage , 14

57.

 Sue Ann Buchanan can make $800,000 on the pro tennis tour, but would be willing to do it for $ 200,000. Her economic rent is

a. 200,000

b. 600,000

c. 800,000

d. 1,000,000

58. Despite their fantastic employment gains, African American men earn ___ % of what white men earn.

a. 65

b.55

c. 60

d. 76

59. Since 1996, productivity growth has ___ and real wages have ____

a. risen; risen

b. fallen; fallen

c. risen; fallen

d. fallen; risen

60. Which statement is false?

a. The minimum wage has not kept up with the rate of inflation

b. the average real hourly earnings fell steadily from 1973 to 1993

c. Workers with some High School diplomas

d. It is harder for a middle class student to get a college degree because since 1979, the cost of going has gone up twice as fast as the rate of inflation.

Hello guys,

I have an open quiz and i need help with it? 

 

 

Please find the attachments.Let me know if any one program(roulette, worldcupsoccer,halfpills,twoDhistogram) can be done from the attachments and hw3.doc is the program requirement.

 

 

 

Question :

 

  1. An experiment was conducted on the growth rates of tree seedlings by selecting seeds from 4 varieties of trees (denoted Victoria1, Victoria2, Clinton, and Branch). Four regional blocks were selected where within each block, 1 ha plots were planted with seedlings from each variety. Then within each 1 ha plot, four 100 m2 sub-plots were selected, and one of 4 different sprays were sprayed on the seedlings. These four treatments were denoted as (Check, Ceresan, Panogen, and Agrox). The data can be found found at trees.csv

    1. What is the experimental design?

    2. Create an interaction plot for the variety.

    3. Create an ANOVA table and perform relevant tests.

    4. Is interaction significant? Do your results agree with part (b)?

    5. Do you think it is a good idea to remove a variety from the data and analyze seperately? Explain.

      1. If yes.

        • How would you analyze the spray for that one variety, i.e. what design would you use? Hint: It might be helpful to visualize the data in wide format.

        • Analyze the remainder of the data (with that one variety removed). Plot interaction plots, determine which effects are significant and perform pairwise Tukey 95% comparisons.

      2. If no, which effects are significant? Perform pairwise Tukey 95% comparisons

         

 

 Write abrief description of the local law you selected for the Application Assignment this week. Then explain a strategy or approach you would take to reform the law and why you chose it. Provide details on the local agencies that you would collaborate with to accomplish this. Be specific.

 



Local and community government agencies regulate different laws through local ordinances. From leash laws to motion picture film ordinances, there are a wide variety of different local laws. These laws vary from community to community depending on the needs of that area. For example, in the Municipal Code of Malibu, California, there exists a chapter known as the Motion Picture, Television and Photographic Production Ordinance, or "Filming Ordinance," which covers permits and insurance required before production can begin. In Topeka, Kansas, there exists an ordinance that prohibits the sale of cereal malt beverages before noon or after 8:00 p.m. on Sundays, unless it is Easter Sunday, when sales are prohibited all day. In order to ensure that local laws continue to meet the needs of all community stakeholders, it can become necessary to implement local reforms. As a policy practitioner, it is helpful to consider strategies for implementing reforms and the persons and agencies that can work together to accomplish reform.



To prepare for this Discussion:

  • Review the article, “The Legal Context of School Violence: The Effectiveness of Federal, State, and Local Law Enforcement Efforts to Reduce Gun Violence in Schools.” Reflect on how federal incentives support local initiatives and agencies in regulating local law.
  • Think about a strategy or approach that you would use to reform the local law you selected for the Application this week. Consider the local agencies you would work with and how you could work to change the law.

Be sure to support your postings and responses with specific information from the Learning Resources

 

Briefly describe the local law you selected.

  • Outline the local law you selected by listing the elements, results, and expectations of the local law. Refer back to Week 6 for examples on how to outline laws.

 

  • Explain how this local law impacts its community.

 

Support your Application Assignment with specific references to all resources used in its preparation. You are asked to provide a reference list only for those resources not included in the Learning Resources for this course

You primarily have examined law at the state and federal levels, but as a public administrator or policy practitioner, you are perhaps more likely to encounter local law on a regular basis. Local ordinances impact many aspects of daily life. Construction standards, business licensing, rent control, noise control, public health and safety, public parking, and zoning are just a few of the areas that are governed by such ordinances. Due to the broad spectrum of laws, it is vital to know how to research local ordinances. It also is important to be able to interpret the law so that you are aware of how a law impacts its community.

This exercise will help you become more proficient at recognizing, translating, and evaluating if and and statements. In this assignment, find two examples for the exercise; translate the claims of the example into symbolic form; identify an if or an and statement; then assess it.

Note: Translation and assessment are tools we use to categorize statements. Therefore, you will not be penalized if, through translation and assessment, you learn a statement that appeared to be an if or an and statement is a statement of another type.

The completed assignment must contain the original claims, your translation of the claims into logical form, and your assessment of the statement in logical form. The original examples should be three to five sentences in length.

Your assessment should include answers to the following questions:

  • Is the set of claims an argument?
  • Is the original claim (when translated) an if . . . then or and statement?
  • Did the translation of the original claims reveal the statement was a different kind of statement than you originally believed?

Remember, you will also need to provide a translation key to explain the symbols you use

 

You must cite the source of information you use in your argument appropriately. Apply current APA standards for editorial style, expression of ideas, and format of text, citations, and references.

Assignment 2 Grading Criteria
Maximum Points
Provided two claims for analysis.
8
Accurately translated the statement into logical form and provided a translation key.
24
Logically explained why the selected statement is an if or an and statement.
28
Accurately analyzed the statement presented and explained if the translation of the statement made any revelations.
28
Included appropriate citation and applied current APA standards for editorial style, expression of ideas, and format of text, citations, and references.
12
Total:
100

 

 

 

A project that contains you going through course lectures and writing a very good paper comparing what you have learned to real life experience or published work.

A researcher writes a grant proposal to repeat an experiment that was recently published by another researcher. Which of the following statements best supports the grant proposal?

 

A. Funding this grant proposal will allow this laboratory to continue to study this topic.

 

B. Funding this important research will benefit science in the long term.

 

C. Repeating the published work will provide independent confirmation of the results.

 

D. Repeating published work with changed variables will extend the previous results.

 

At the instant that an elastic falling object strikes the ground and becomes compressed, which of the following energy transformations occurs?

 

A. Gravitational to electric

 

B. Potential to kinetic

 

C. Electric to gravitational

 

D. Kinetic to potential

 

A cylinder and an airtight piston are used in the following experiment. The piston is pushed up and down in the cylinder and the resulting pressure of the air inside the cylinder is measured with a pressure gauge. The results of the experiment are recorded in the following table: Volume of Air (L) Pressure Reading (Atm) 8 1 4 2 2 4 1 8 A hypothesis concerning the apparatus is stated as follows: "When the volume of the cylinder is decreased, the pressure is increased." Which of the following statements is true?

 

A. The hypothesis is supported by the experimental data.

 

B. The hypothesis is refuted by the experimental data.

 

C. The hypothesis is not addressed by the experiment.

 

D. There is not enough information to make a judgment about the hypothesis.

 

Which of the following procedures is an appropriate negative control for testing the hypothesis that air contains bread mold spores? 

 

A. Seal slices of bread in a container to minimize air contact.

 

B. Place slices of bread in a refrigerated environment.

 

C. Add ingredients to the bread recipe that will slow mold growth.

 

D. Expose a different mold-supporting medium to air.

 

 

A researcher wants to develop a new pharmaceutical compound to treat pain. Which of the following strategies will likely be the most effective process?

 

A. Test extracts from newly discovered plants for pain-killing substances.

 

B. Read anthropological studies to discover plants identified to relieve pain.

 

C. Study molecular structures of existing pain medications and make structural analogs.

 

D. Research the pain receptors of people who have unusually high pain thresholds.

 

 

For which of the following temperature scales is 0° equal to the freezing point of water?

 

A. Kelvin

 

B. Fahrenheit

 

C. Celsius

 

D. Newton

 

 Which of the following is an appropriate description of the arrangement of the cell membrane?

 

A. Fluid phospholipid bilayer containing embedded proteins

 

B. Rigid carbohydrate bilayer containing embedded phospholipids

 

C. Rigid layer of phospholipids with proteins on the outer surface

 

D. Layers of protein and carbohydrates forming a fluid structure

 

Which of the following is the mechanism by which water is reabsorbed in the renal nephrons?

 

 A. Osmosis

 

B. Filtration

 

C. Active transport

 

D. lon exchange

 

A study demonstrates that treatment of peptic ulcers with antibiotics results in improvement in a large number of patients. This implies that

 

A. antibiotics neutralize stomach acid.

 

B. these ulcers are caused by a bacterial infection.

 

C. pressure ulcers can be treated in the same manner.

 

D. antibiotics should be prescribed to prevent ulcers.

 

 In developing countries, which of the following factors correlates with high birth rates? 

 

A. Increased availability of contraception

 

B. Increased education and standard of living

 

C. High infant mortality rate

 

D. High availability of postnatal care

 

 

An experienced mountaineer decides to climb Mount Everest using the same route in the same season and with similar materials and equipment used by a fatal1924 expedition. The scientific purpose of such a climb would be to

 

A. show that modern technology makes climbing safer.

 

B. identify routes that may be explored in future climbs.

 

C. assess why the earlier expedition may have failed.

 

 

NaOH + HS0-+ Hp + NaS0 24 24 Which of the following is the number of moles of NaOH required to neutralize 1 mole of H2S04 in the equation above? (Note: The reaction is not balanced.)

 

A. 0.5 moles

 

B. 1 mole

 

C. 1.5 moles

 

D. 2 moles 1

 

 

 Two students collect information about the number of dandelions in a park. Based on their sampling, they estimate that there are 900 dandelions in the 300-square-meter city park. To determine the accuracy of their estimate, which of the following questions is necessary?

 

A. What was the range of sizes among the sampled dandelions?

 

B. How many samples were taken to determine the estimate?

 

C. What time of day was the sampling conducted?

 

D. Were the dandelions distributed only in grassy areas?

 

 During the process of embryogenesis, formation of multiple cell types from stem cells occurs due to

 

A. differentiation.

 

B. metamorphosis.

 

C. divergence.

 

D. reorganization.

 

Which of the following properties of water explains its characterization as the universal solvent?

 

A. Kinetic energy of liquid water molecules

 

B. High specific heat

 

C. Polarity of water molecules

 

D. High surface tension

 

 If A represents atomic mass and Z represents atomic number, which of the following describes an atom after a proton is emitted from its nucleus?

 

A. A+ 1, Z + 1

 

B. A-1,Z-1

 

C. A+ 1, Z-1

 

D. A-1, Z + 1

 

A student is assigned the task of measuring the mass of one tennis ball using a scale for which the zero adjustment on the balance is not working. The student is given three balls and the can in which they were packaged. Which of the following strategies will provide the best determination of the correct mass?

 

A. Weigh each ball separately and average the results.

 

B. Weigh the empty can; weigh the can with a ball in it; and compute the difference between the two.

 

C. Weigh the three balls together and divide by three.

 

D. Weigh each ball separately, adjusting the beam weights from below first and then from above. Then, average the results.

 

A researcher writes a grant proposal to repeat an experiment that was recently published by another researcher. Which of the following statements best supports the grant proposal?

 

A. Funding this grant proposal will allow this laboratory to continue to study this topic.

 

B. Funding this important research will benefit science in the long term.

 

C. Repeating the published work will provide independent confirmation of the results.

 

D. Repeating published work with changed variables will extend the previous results.

 

At the instant that an elastic falling object strikes the ground and becomes compressed, which of the following energy transformations occurs?

 

A. Gravitational to electric

 

B. Potential to kinetic

 

C. Electric to gravitational

 

D. Kinetic to potential

 

Which of the following describes the most important reason for repeating an experimental investigation?

 

A. To verify the validity of the original findings

 

B. To expand upon the original investigation

 

C. To manipulate the independent variable

 

D. To attempt to disprove the hypothesis

 

Which of the following molecules contains the fewest covalent bonds?

 

A. Water molecule (Hp)

 

B. Ammonia molecule (NH3)

 

C. Methane molecule (CH4)

 

D. Chlorine molecule (CI2)

 

An example of active immunity is the transfer of

 

A. antibodies through the placenta.

 

B. immunoglobulins through breastfeeding.

 

C. antigens through vaccination.

 

D. immune cells through a blood transfusion.

 

 Mutations during which of the following processes in animals will affect offspring of succeeding generations?

 

A Meiosis

 

B. Mitosis

 

C. Translation

 

D. Transcription

 

 

 

Which of the following describes the classification of humans?

 

A. The genus Homo and the species sapiens

 

B. The phyla Homo and the species sapiens

 

C. The family sapiens and the genus Homo

 

D. The class sapiens and the genus Homo

 

A student conducts an investigation in which she dissolves 1 gram (g) each of several substances in 50 milliliters (ml) of water. She has 12 identical plastic cups of water. She places 1 g of salt in three cups, 1 g of sugar in three cups, and 1 g of baking soda in three cups. Three cups contain only water. She places all the cups in a freezer and records the temperature in each cup every 15 minutes for 4 hours. Which of the following is the best way for the student to display the results of this investigation?

 

A. Pie chart

 

B. Bar graph

 

C. Venn diagram

 

D. Line graph

 

An equal mass of which of the following states of matter could completely fill both a 100 mL or 500 ml container?

 

A. Gas

 

B. Liquid

 

C. Mixture

 

D. Solid

 

 Which of the following describes mitosis?

 

A. A single cell splits and shares its chromatin with a sex cell.

 

B. Two parent cells combine to create a single cell with equal amounts of DNA from each parent.

 

C. The nucleus of a single cell creates two new nuclei with DNA identical to the parent cell.

 

D. An X and a Y chromosome divide in the nucleus of a sex cell before combining into a gamete.

 

Less-economically developed countries will experience higher birth rates than more-economically developed countries due to

 

A. decreased availability of sanitary water.

 

B. higher infant mortality rate.

 

C. higher literacy rate of women.

 

D. increased availability of contraceptives.

 

DNA can copy itself quite accurately while RNA cannot because only DNA is

 

A. in double helix form .

 

B. surrounded and supported by histone proteins.

 

C. a polymer of nucleotides.

 

D. confined to the nucleus.

 

 

39. Experiments cannot validate hypotheses, only falsify them. The statement above can be restated in which of the following ways?

 

A. Until disproved, an explanation for an observation is valid.

 

B. Certain concepts cannot be subjected to direct experimentation.

 

C. A hypothesis that has not been falsified remains provisional.

 

D. Proving a hypothesis exempts it from further testing.

 

A researcher collects high-resolution photographs of the Earth taken from outer space at annual intervals for the last decade. This data would be most useful to analyze which of the following?

 

A. Human movement during crises

 

B. Migration patterns of large whales

 

C. Deforestation in the rainforest

 

D. Weather patterns during hurricanes

 

Moths with a certain coloring are camouflaged in their habitat. Over time, more moths are born with this coloring. Which of the following best explains the increasing number of moths with this coloring?

 

A. Natural selection

 

B. Gene flow

 

C. Genetic drift

 

D. Sexual selection

 

Which of the following is the purpose of the waxy substance that builds up in the ear canal?

 

 A. Insulating the ear canal

 

B. Trapping and removing debris

 

C. Promoting sound conduction

 

D. Cushioning and stabilizing the pinna

 

Which of the following properties of water helps organisms maintain homeostasis with regard to thermoregulation?

 

A. High heat capacity

 

B. Adhesion

 

C. Surface tension

 

D. Capillary action

 

 

Fitness is a result of which of the following factors?

 

A. Overproduction

 

B. Adaptation

 

C. Variability

 

D. Homology

 

 When calculating population growth, which of the following equations is appropriate?

 

A. (Emigrants-immigrants)+ (births-deaths)

 

B. (Immigrants-emigrants)+ (births -deaths)

 

C. (Births+ deaths)-(emigrants + immigrants)

 

D. (Births-deaths) -(immigrants+ emigrants)

 

A researcher wants to develop a new pharmaceutical compound to treat pain. Which of the following strategies will likely be the most effective process?

 

A. Test extracts from newly discovered plants for pain-killing substances.

 

B. Read anthropological studies to discover plants identified to relieve pain.

 

C. Study molecular structures of existing pain medications and make structural analogs.

 

D. Research the pain receptors of people who have unusually high pain thresholds.

 

 Two boys pull their identical sleds to the top of a hill. One boy loads his sled with bricks while the other boy does not put any extra objects in his sled. The two boys, each weighing the same, get into their sleds and have a friend start them with equal pushes down the hill. Which of the following hypotheses are the boys most likely testing?

 

A. The heavier the object, the more momentum it will have.

 

B. The force of sliding friction is greater than the force of rolling friction.

 

C. The size of the frictional force is determined by the types of surfaces rubbing together.

 

D. The faster an object is traveling, the more momentum it will have.

 

An individual suffers severe blunt trauma to the thoracic cavity. Which of the following organs are at greatest risk from this injury?

 

A. Heart and lungs

 

B. Liver and stomach

 

C. Brain and spinal cord

 

D. Large and small intestines

 

Which of the following statements best explains the relationship between the mitochondria and the plasma membrane?

 

A. The mitochondria makes proteins that become a part of the plasma membrane.

 

B. The mitochondria makes a gas that the plasma membrane uses.

 

C. The mitochondria builds cytoskeleton that gives the plasma membrane strength.

 

D. The mitochondria makes ATP that the plasma membrane can use for energy.

 

A researcher is studying the rate of chemical reactions within living blood cells. When placing the cells into a petri dish with a pH of 2.5, the researcher should predict that the rate of the reactions will

 

A. increase immediately.

 

B. decrease immediately.

 

C. remain the same.

 

D. increase immediately, then decrease gradually.

 

Which of the following represents Boyle's gas law?

 

A. Gas turns to a liquid when temperature reaches 0° C (32° F).

 

B. As the volume of a gas increases, the temperature also increases.

 

C. At any temperature, inert gases are less combustible than non-inert gases.

 

D. At a fixed temperature, the pressure and volume of a gas are inversely related